0 votes 0 votes A relation is said to be antisymmetric if (a,b) belong to R and (b,a) belong to R implies a=b... that means antisymmetric is reflexive? Nisha kumari asked Jan 29, 2015 Nisha kumari 629 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 votes 1 votes No, reflexive means if (a,b) belongs to R, (a,a) and (b,a) should also be in R. Anti-symmetric actually says symmetry should not be there. i.e., if (a,b), and (b,a) shouldn't be present together unless a = b. Arjun answered Jan 29, 2015 Arjun comment Share Follow See all 5 Comments See all 5 5 Comments reply focus _GATE commented Jul 16, 2015 reply Follow Share sir ,for eg if we have { (a,b) (b,a) } than this relation is not anti symmetric because if (a,b) is there than (b,a) should not there but in the same set if we have { (a,b) (b,a) (a,a) (b,b) } then sir this relation is reflexive and it is antisymmetric becoz (a,a) (b,b) exists as in definition of antisymmetric we have a=b .. sir .correct me if wrong.. 0 votes 0 votes Arjun commented Jul 16, 2015 reply Follow Share How it is anti-symmetric? It is a symmetric and reflexive relation. 0 votes 0 votes focus _GATE commented Jul 16, 2015 reply Follow Share k sir i got where i was wrong ...! yes u r right it is reflexive and symmetric!! 1 votes 1 votes focus _GATE commented Jul 16, 2015 reply Follow Share sir ,in this question why answer is no .?? 0 votes 0 votes Arjun commented Jul 16, 2015 reply Follow Share Because we can have an anti symmetric relation but not reflexive- {(1,2), (1,3)} for example. 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.