0 0 votes The number of bijective maps $g:\mathbb{N}\rightarrow\mathbb{N}$ such that $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{g(n)}{n^2}<\infty$$ is $0$ $1$ $2$ $\infty$ Theory of Computation tifrmaths2021 functions test-series number-theory + – soujanyareddy13 483 views answer comment Share Follow Print 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.