Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem - Given a function f that is continuous over [a,b] and differentiable over (a,b), then there exists a value c that belongs to [a,b] such that f'(c) = (f(b) - f(a)) / (b - a).
The first sentence of the question gives the pre-requisites for the above theorem. Therefore, the above theorem can be applied here.
f'(E) = (f(b) - f(a)) / (b - a) --> Eqn. 1
g'(E) = (g(b) - g(a)) / (b - a) --> Eqn. 2
As g'(x) is != 0 when x belongs to (a,b), we can divide Eqn. 1 with Eqn. 2.
Therefore we can write - f'(E) / g'(E) = (f(b) - f(a)) / (g(b) - g(a))