Given Condition
We are given three sets $A$, $B$, and $C$ such that:
$A \cap B \neq \emptyset$ (Their intersection is not empty).
$A \cap B \subseteq C$ (Every element common to $A$ and $B$ is also in $C$).
Option A: $B \cap C \neq \emptyset$.
Statement: This is True.
Proof:
From the given condition, we know there exists at least one element $x$ such that $x \in (A \cap B)$.
By the definition of intersection, if $x \in (A \cap B)$, then $x \in A$ and $x \in B$.
We are also given $A \cap B \subseteq C$. Therefore, since $x \in (A \cap B)$, it must be that $x \in C$.
Since $x \in B$ and $x \in C$, it follows that $x \in (B \cap C)$.
Because such an $x$ exists, $B \cap C$ cannot be empty.
Option B: If $(A - B) \subseteq C$, then $A \subseteq C$
Statement: This is True.
Proof:
Any set $A$ can be expressed as the union of two disjoint parts: $A = (A \cap B) \cup (A - B)$.
We are given:
Taking the union of these two subsets: $(A \cap B) \cup (A - B) \subseteq C \cup C$.
Since $(A \cap B) \cup (A - B) = A$ and $C \cup C = C$, we conclude that $A \subseteq C$.
Option C: $(C \cup A) \cap (C \cup B) = C$
Statement: This is True.
Proof:
Using the Distributive Law of sets: $(C \cup A) \cap (C \cup B) = C \cup (A \cap B)$.
We are given that $A \cap B \subseteq C$.
In set theory, if $X \subseteq Y$, then $Y \cup X = Y$.
Applying this here with $X = (A \cap B)$ and $Y = C$, we get: $C \cup (A \cap B) = C$.
Therefore, the identity holds.
Option D: If $(A - C) \subseteq B$, then $A \subseteq B$
Statement: This is Not True.
Proof by Counter-example:
To prove a statement is not true, we only need one case where the conditions are met but the conclusion fails.
Let $A = \{1, 2\}$
Let $B = \{1\}$
Let $C = \{1, 2\}$
Check Given Conditions:
$A \cap B = \{1\}$. Is it non-empty? Yes.
Is $A \cap B \subseteq C$? $\{1\} \subseteq \{1, 2\}$. Yes.
Check Premise of Option 4:
$A - C = \{1, 2\} - \{1, 2\} = \emptyset$.
Is $(A - C) \subseteq B$? $\emptyset \subseteq \{1\}$. Yes.
Check Conclusion of Option 4:
Is $A \subseteq B$? Is $\{1, 2\} \subseteq \{1\}$? No.
The premise is satisfied, but the conclusion is false. Therefore, the statement is not universally true.
Final Answer
The statement that is not true is Option D.