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Question Determine whether the following function from R to R is a bijection
f(x) = $\frac{(x+1)}{(x+2)}$

Solution:
First of all, this is not a function because f(-2) is not defined.

So, if the domain of the function is R - {-2} then this function is one-to-one.

And, if co-domain of this function is R - {1} then this function is onto.

So, the given function is bijection but with two above mentioned conditions. can someone please confirm?

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