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70 70 votes

Let the function

$$f(\theta) = \begin{vmatrix} \sin\theta & \cos\theta & \tan\theta  \\ \sin(\frac{\pi}{6}) & \cos(\frac{\pi}{6}) & \tan(\frac{\pi}{6}) & \\ \sin(\frac{\pi}{3}) & \cos(\frac{\pi}{3}) & \tan(\frac{\pi}{3})   \end{vmatrix} $$

where 

$\theta \in \left[ \frac{\pi}{6},\frac{\pi}{3} \right]$ and $f'(\theta)$     denote the derivative of $f$ with respect to $\theta$. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

  1. There exists $\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{6},\frac{\pi}{3})$ such that $f'(\theta) = 0$
  2. There exists $\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{6},\frac{\pi}{3})$ such that $f'(\theta)\neq  0$
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II

6 Answers

Best answer
82 82 votes

We need to solve this by Rolle's theorem. To apply Rolle's theorem following $3$ conditions should be satisfied:

  1. $f(x)$ should be continuous in interval $[a, b],$
  2. $f(x)$ should be differentiable in interval $(a, b),$ and
  3. $f(a) = f(b)$

If these $3$ conditions are satisfied simultaneously then, there exists at least one $'x'$ such that $f '(x) = 0$

For the given question, it satisfies all the three conditions, so we can apply Rolle's theorem, i.e, there exists at least one $\theta$ that gives $f '(\theta) = 0$

Also, the given function is also not a constant function, i.e., for some $\theta,$ $f '(\theta) ≠ 0$

So, answer is C.
 

• selected by
79 79 votes

Solution:

13 13 votes
Question
Let $f(\theta)$ be defined as:



$$f(\theta) = \begin{vmatrix} \sin\theta & \cos\theta & \tan\theta \\ \sin\frac{\pi}{6} & \cos\frac{\pi}{6} & \tan\frac{\pi}{6} \\ \sin\frac{\pi}{3} & \cos\frac{\pi}{3} & \tan\frac{\pi}{3} \end{vmatrix}, \quad \theta \in \left[\frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{\pi}{3}\right]$$

Consider the following statements:

I. There exists $\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{\pi}{3})$ such that $f'(\theta) = 0$.

II. There exists $\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{\pi}{3})$ such that $f'(\theta) \neq 0$.

Best Approach: Rolle's Theorem
This problem can be solved efficiently by utilizing the properties of determinants and Rolle's Theorem, avoiding tedious differentiation or expansion.

Key Observation: Determinant Properties
A determinant is zero if any two rows are identical.

If we plug in $\theta = \frac{\pi}{6}$, Row 1 becomes identical to Row 2. Thus, $f(\frac{\pi}{6}) = 0$.

If we plug in $\theta = \frac{\pi}{3}$, Row 1 becomes identical to Row 3. Thus, $f(\frac{\pi}{3}) = 0$.

Step 1: Evaluating Statement I
According to Rolle's Theorem, if a function $f(x)$ is:

Continuous on $[a, b]$

Differentiable on $(a, b)$

And $f(a) = f(b)$

Then there must exist at least one $c \in (a, b)$ such that $f'(c) = 0$.

Here, $f(\frac{\pi}{6}) = f(\frac{\pi}{3}) = 0$.

Since $f(\theta)$ is a combination of trigonometric functions, it is continuous and differentiable in the given interval.

Conclusion: There exists $\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{\pi}{3})$ such that $f'(\theta) = 0$.

👉 Statement I is TRUE.

Step 2: Evaluating Statement II
Statement II asks if there is any point where the derivative is non-zero.

If $f'(\theta) = 0$ for all $\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{\pi}{3})$, then $f(\theta)$ must be a constant function.

We know $f(\frac{\pi}{6}) = 0$. If we pick an intermediate value like $\theta = \frac{\pi}{4}$:



$$f\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right) = \begin{vmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} & 1/\sqrt{2} & 1 \\ 1/2 & \sqrt{3}/2 & 1/\sqrt{3} \\ \sqrt{3}/2 & 1/2 & \sqrt{3} \end{vmatrix}$$

The rows are linearly independent, so $f(\frac{\pi}{4}) \neq 0$.

Since the function is not constant, its derivative cannot be zero everywhere.

👉 Statement II is TRUE.

Final Answer
Both statements I and II are correct.

Correct Option: (C)
9 9 votes

One major reason of confusion here is that people are differentiating the determinant in a wrong manner. The differentiation of a determinant is done in the following manner:

  1. Select a Row
  2. Differentiate that Row keeping others constant

 

$\frac{d}{dt}\begin{vmatrix} a_{11}(t) & a_{12}(t) & a_{13}(t) \\ a_{21}(t) & a_{22}(t) & a_{23}(t) \\ a_{31}(t) & a_{32}(t) & a_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix} a'_{11}(t) & a'_{12}(t) & a'_{13}(t) \\ a_{21}(t) & a_{22}(t) & a_{23}(t) \\ a_{31}(t) & a_{32}(t) & a_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}+\begin{vmatrix} a_{11}(t) & a_{12}(t) & a_{13}(t) \\ a'_{21}(t) & a'_{22}(t) & a'_{23}(t) \\ a_{31}(t) & a_{32}(t) & a_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}+\begin{vmatrix} a_{11}(t) & a_{12}(t) & a_{13}(t) \\ a_{21}(t) & a_{22}(t) & a_{23}(t) \\ a'_{31}(t) & a'_{32}(t) & a'_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}.$

So the differentiation of

$f(\theta) = \begin{vmatrix} sin(\theta) & cos(\theta) & tan(\theta)\\ sin(\frac{\pi}{6}) & cos(\frac{\pi}{6}) & tan(\frac{\pi}{6})\\ sin(\frac{\pi}{3}) & cos(\frac{\pi}{3}) & tan(\frac{\pi}{3})\\ \end{vmatrix}$

represented as $f’(\theta)$ would not have 2 rows zero and would not zero out.

3 3 votes

Here is the graph of f'(x).

Answer:
Position:
Show:

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