1 votes 1 votes Show that $\exists x (P(x) \vee Q(x))$ and $\exists x P(x) \vee \exists x Q(x)$ are logically equivalent. Mathematical Logic kenneth-rosen discrete-mathematics mathematical-logic propositional-logic + – Pooja Khatri asked Mar 18, 2019 Pooja Khatri 336 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 2 votes 2 votes Both are equivelent. abhishekmehta4u answered Mar 18, 2019 • selected Mar 18, 2019 by Lakshman Bhaiya abhishekmehta4u comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.