1 1 vote $\underset{x\to 0}{\lim} \dfrac{(1-\cos x)}{2}$ is equal to $0$ $1$ $1/3$ $1/2$ Calculus nielit2016mar-scientistb engineering-mathematics calculus limits + – admin 933 views answer comment Share Follow Print 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 0 votes Correct answer is A: 0 Since it is not 0/0 condition so we can't apply L'Hospital Rule and just putting x=0 will give 0 and also when expanding cos x=cos^2 (x/2) - sin^2 (x/2) and then putting x=0 will still give 0(zero) as answer. aman_0709 answered Mar 31, 2020 aman_0709 comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 0 votes $\large \lim_{x->0}\frac{\left ( 1-cosx \right )}{2}$ =>$\large \lim_{x->0}\frac{\left ( 1-cosx \right )}{x}*\frac{x}{2}$ =$\large \lim_{x->0}\frac{\left ( 1-cosx \right )}{x}\lim_{x->0}*\frac{x}{2}$ [$\large \lim_{x->0}\frac{\left ( 1-cosx \right )}{x}=0$] =$0*0$ =$0$ Kabir5454 answered May 11, 2022 • edited May 15, 2022 by Kabir5454 Kabir5454 comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.