12 12 votes The Karnaugh map of a function of $(A, B, C)$ is shown on the left hand side of the above figure. The reduced form of the same map is shown on the right hand side, in which the variable $C$ is entered in the map itself. Discuss, The methodology by which the reduced map has been derived and the rules (or steps) by which the boolean function can be derived from the entries in the reduced map. Digital Logic gate1988 descriptive digital-logic k-map + – go_editor 4.1k views answer comment Share Follow Print See 1 comment 1 1 comment reply Deepak Poonia commented Jul 14, 2025 reply Follow flag Learn the "Compact Truth Table" concept Here: https://youtu.be/Hn9MhOJs6F0Both Parts A, B can be Easily Solved after watching the above lecture, with Many More Variations. 2 2 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 26 26 votes We can get the truth table as $$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}\hline A&B&C&F\\\hline 0&0&0&1\\ 0&0&1&0\\ 0&1&0&1\\ 0&1&1&1\\ 1&0&0&0\\ 1&0&1&1\\ 1&1&0&0\\ 1&1&1&1\\ \hline \end{array}$$ Now, to reduce the K-map to a Variable Entrant Map we can write the function $F$ in terms of $C$. i.e., wherever $F$ is becoming $1$ dependent on $C$ (i.e. when $C$ complements $F$ must become $0)$, we replace $1$ with $C$ or $\bar C$ based on whichever is giving output $1.$ So, we can rewrite the truth table as $$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}\hline A&B&F\\\hline 0&0&\bar C\\ 0&1&1\\ 1&0&C\\ 1&1&C\\ \hline \end{array}$$ In the above truth table $F=1$ for second row, because when $A = 0,B=1, F= 1$ for both $C$ and $\bar C$ making $F$ independent of $C.$ Now, if we draw the $K$-map for the above truth table we get the reduced Variant Entrant map given. Arjun answered Jul 13, 2019 • edited Apr 16, 2021 by Lakshman Bhaiya Arjun comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments 2 2 Comments reply rishabhsharma commented Oct 15, 2020 reply Follow flag Thank You Sir :-) 0 0 replyShare Deepak Poonia commented Jul 14, 2025 reply Follow flag Learn the "Compact Truth Table" concept Here: https://youtu.be/Hn9MhOJs6F0Both Parts A, B can be Easily Solved after watching the above lecture, with Many More Variations. 3 3 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
5 5 votes $f(A,B,C)$ = $\overline{A}\overline{C} + BC + AC + \overline{A}B$ ********This method is known as variable entrant map******* Step 1: SOP= $\overline{A}B$ Step 2: $"\overline{C}"$ SOP = $\overline{A} = \overline{A}\overline{C}$ Step 3: "C" SOP = B + A = BC + AC Merge all these terms $F(A,B,C) = \overline{A}\overline{C} + AC + BC +\overline{A}B$ lemme me know if i m wrong... akash.dinkar12 answered May 18, 2017 • edited Jul 9, 2019 by ajaysoni1924 akash.dinkar12 comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments 2 2 Comments reply Priyanka Agarwal commented Aug 14, 2017 reply Follow flag No need of BC....as both 1s (011 and 111) are already covered 4 4 replyShare mayur_dp commented May 28, 2021 reply Follow flag First we can list the K-map in terms of SSOP. If two SSOP terms can be minimized on the reduced literal (C / C’) then we should do so. After that, we can treat the reduced literal (C / C’) as a constant. For terms not containing C / C’, const 1 can be considered (since we are working with SOP here). 1 1 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 1 vote On solving the first k-map we get the following expression: AC+A'C'+BC in the reduced k-map: if C=1, we get, AC+BC if C=0, we get, A'C' on combining both we get AC+A'C'+BC Himanshu P Dev answered May 30, 2025 Himanshu P Dev comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 0 votes The question is different but the concept is similar . step 4 ) SOP of VEM is obtained by ORing the previous SOP expressions . Mitesh_Sharma answered Jan 11, 2023 Mitesh_Sharma comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.