45 45 votes The statement $\left ( ¬p \right ) \Rightarrow \left ( ¬q \right )$ is logically equivalent to which of the statements below? $p \Rightarrow q$ $q \Rightarrow p$ $\left ( ¬q \right ) \vee p$ $\left ( ¬p \right ) \vee q$ I only I and IV only II only II and III only Mathematical Logic gatecse-2017-set1 mathematical-logic propositional-logic easy + – khushtak 15.6k views answer comment Share Follow Print See 1 comment 1 1 comment reply Raj_Dev_Verma commented Jul 15 reply Follow flag Second And third are corrrect So, Option D is Correct 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 44 44 votes $(\neg P\to \neg Q)$ can also be written as $(P \vee \neg Q),$ so statement $3$ is correct. Now taking the contrapositive of $(\neg P\to \neg Q)$, we get $(Q\to P)$ hence statement $2$ is correct. So, the answer is OPTION (D). sriv_shubham answered Feb 14, 2017 • edited Jun 19, 2021 by Lakshman Bhaiya sriv_shubham comment Share Follow See all 3 Comments 3 3 Comments reply Aboveallplayer commented Feb 14, 2017 reply Follow flag i also think the same... 0 0 replyShare Arjun commented Jun 7, 2018 reply Follow flag Ref: 11 11 replyShare pavansan commented Jan 6, 2025 reply Follow flag got it 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
12 12 votes Given statement : ~p $\Rightarrow$ ~q = ~(~p) $\vee$ ~q = p $\vee$ ~q = ~q $\vee$ p = q $\Rightarrow$ p $\therefore$ D should be answer. Kantikumar answered Feb 14, 2017 Kantikumar comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
4 4 votes Option D. $(\sim p) \Rightarrow (\sim q)$ $\sim (\sim p) \vee (\sim q)$ $p \vee (\sim q)$ $ (\sim q) \vee p$ ----------------> III is True $q \Rightarrow p$ -----------------> II is True Uzumaki Naruto answered Feb 14, 2017 Uzumaki Naruto comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
4 4 votes we know that p→ q is equivalent to ~p v q similarly ~p→~q will be equivalent to p v ~q (III) and implication is equivalent to contrapositive , ~p→~q will be equivalent to q→ p (II) answer: Both II & III ,OPTION D Smriti012 answered Feb 14, 2017 Smriti012 comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
4 4 votes Answer is (D) The main Concept is Contrapositive. P------>Q <=> ~Q --------> ~P (Implication =Contrapositive) Q ------>P <=> ~P -------->~Q (Converge = Inverse) Lakshman Bhaiya answered May 1, 2017 Lakshman Bhaiya comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 0 votes option D, as 2 and 3 are Equvalent . and 1 is false and 1 and 4 are same so if 1 is false then both 1, 4 will false hence D Supriyo21 answered Sep 3, 2020 Supriyo21 comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.