can u pls tell me how u took that probability using bernouilli!
i mean how u did the 2nd last step @Prateek Raghuvanshi
see this please if it is correct!!
# of onto fn= total fn - into fn
=2^{n}- {atleast one of rhs is not mapped}
=2^{n} - {1- all elements in rhs are mapped}
now am not able to solve it further;
the way u did is also good, but i was thinking if the elements in set B are large,then we cant chk for every case right, we have to do it like this.
can u pls tell me how to solve it further. It would be a great help!